I was reading last night about incongruence in genetic phylogeny last night. As part of the comments in the blog someone mentioned something that I had not heard of before, It seemed like it may be difficult to look up, so I thought that I would ask here, and see if anyone with more knowledge than I could confirm or deny this.
The claim was that in doing a phylogenetic analysis concerning that the DNA that are used for paternity tests in humans, are not used in phylogenetic tree's comparing humans and chimps (because they would not match).
There are a number of biologist and experts on this blog, but I wasn't familiar with this poster, and didn't want to jump to conclusions based off of a single source. Can anyone confirm or deny this.
The claim was that in doing a phylogenetic analysis concerning that the DNA that are used for paternity tests in humans, are not used in phylogenetic tree's comparing humans and chimps (because they would not match).
There are a number of biologist and experts on this blog, but I wasn't familiar with this poster, and didn't want to jump to conclusions based off of a single source. Can anyone confirm or deny this.
