(February 7, 2017 at 5:14 am)Fake Messiah Wrote:(February 6, 2017 at 9:58 am)Godschild Wrote: You misunderstood and after I posted I thought it might appear as if I had answered your question, sorry. The statement was not intended as an answer to your question.
Let me give you a hint, compare the OT to the NT and you will see your question has no relevance.
GC
I don't see how the question has no relevance when New Testament is in constant coherence with proving the prophecy of the Old Testament, continuously referring to: "in accordance with the prophet," etc., etc., ad nauseum—the most important of which coming from the words of Jesus himself: "Do not think I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have not come to abolish but to fulfill. Amen, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest part or the smallest part of a letter will pass from the law, until all things have taken place." (Matthew 5:17)
There is indeed a difference in the OT and NT and that difference invalidates your question completely. The Jewish laws that Jesus rebuked the pharisees and priest about do not apply to Christians. Christ is the fulfillment of the prophesies and the law by living the perfect sinless life, dying on the cross and being raised from the grave.
GC
God loves those who believe and those who do not and the same goes for me, you have no choice in this matter. That puts the matter of total free will to rest.