Is it true that there is no absolute morality?

[bennyboy]

Bit of an impasse...but if they're all moral facts, then how can you be anything other than completely sold on objective morality?  Further, if they're all moral facts, then why would you not go about demonstrating them as-such?

Because I believe the truth value of many statements depends on the semantics.  I can show pretty easily that objective-morality-by-my-definition and moral-fact-by-my-definition are coherent.  But it doesn't matter because people will make their own definitions. So I'd have to demonstrate for a potentially infinite definition set that there's always a hypothetical set of moral facts.

You could argue much the same for beauty.  Is it objective?  What about love or any of the other feelings we have which are accompanied by parts of our world view?  I'd argue that "subjective" just means "varying among individuals" and is not a polar opposite of "objective" at all given a deterministic universe  or at least one without true free agency.  We don't look at waves and argue that because they vary they are more than a product of wind, gravity, and water and so on; each wave has an objective truth of its own, and an objective truth which defines all ocean waves. And even if you say, "by 'wave' I meant the transference of energy in a radiating pattern, not those things you see on an ocean" it wouldn't matter. Whatever the definition we give, either there's an objective reality behind the reality, or they are mythological.