RE: A question about original sin.
August 19, 2011 at 11:06 pm
(This post was last modified: August 19, 2011 at 11:10 pm by The Grand Nudger.)
I'm still wondering which nations you're referring too. We have no evidence of any nation ever being destroyed by magic. Further, why is gods destruction so limited in range? We have evidence of long lasting pagan civilizations in just about every corner of the world. Did he decide to give them a pass? Why destruction for some and prosperity for others. It doesn't seem as if gods justice was applied very equally, if it was applied at all.
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