(April 23, 2018 at 10:07 pm)Jehanne Wrote: The Gospels themselves imply that Jesus' disciples could not read or write, as was the case with 95% of the people alive in 1st-century Palestine. They were mostly fisherman, after all, who spoke Aramaic and not Greek.
Where in the gospels does it imply that? Now I think that you are merely making guess at these things. And it is perfectly possible that they where literate. Scholars believe that there was a higher literacy rate amongst Jews. I think that your assumption that they didn’t speak Greek has even less support. We also know that Peter and Paul mention using amanuensis (this may also explain some of the differences some think they see in style between some letters).
It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. - Alexander Vilenkin
If I am shown my error, I will be the first to throw my books into the fire. - Martin Luther
If I am shown my error, I will be the first to throw my books into the fire. - Martin Luther