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Objective morality: how would it affect your judgement/actions?
#20
RE: Objective morality: how would it affect your judgement/actions?
(May 3, 2018 at 9:35 am)Neo-Scholastic Wrote:
(May 3, 2018 at 9:24 am)Kit Wrote: Incorrect, for anthropologically speaking, morality (the concept of being good for the benefit of all) existed in society well before Judeo-christianity attempted to monopolize it.

You misunderstood. It is true that every culture and society has some kind of morality defining obligations and prohibitions, they are not identical because each is predicated on underlying assumptions about authority, human nature, and Man's place in the world. The moral principles of Western civilization are informed by underlying assumptions that come from Jewish and Christian traditions. The moral systems of ancient paganism, in Imperial China, among barbarian Germanic tribes, etc. were much different precisely because they did not have those traditions. If you want to know what morality looks like divorced from Judeo-Christian values all you need to do is read a little Nietzsche.

You're a dishonest and disingenuous twat. Your claims are false and you're sufficiently educated to know that.

Quote:The Tale of the Eloquent Peasant is a literary work from the Middle Kingdom of Egypt (2040-1782 BCE) which illustrates the value society placed on the concept of justice and equality under the law. In the story, a peasant named Khun-Anup is beaten and robbed by Nemtynakht, a wealthy landowner, who then tells him there is no use in complaining to the authorities because no one will listen to a poor man. The rest of the tale relates how Khun-Anup, believing in the power of justice, refutes Nemtynakht and wins his case.

The Eloquent Peasant & Egyptian Justice
[Image: extraordinarywoo-sig.jpg]
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RE: Objective morality: how would it affect your judgement/actions? - by Angrboda - May 3, 2018 at 11:12 am

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