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How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures?
#39
RE: How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures?
And the instances where the variations go beyond different approaches to transliterating Aramaic? Because the addition of an entire verse is not something that strikes me as just a different interpretation of some Aramaic.

And your remark on Aramaic not having a written form, I’m not sure how to interpret it, whether it means Aramaic didn’t actually have a written alphabet at the time, which is flat-out wrong, whether the original Aramaic speakers who told the stories didn’t actually write it down until Greek supplanted Aramaic, which is accurate, or if you meant that it was hard to properly transliterate a system that doesn’t have its own vowels into one that does, well, it’s an oversimplified version of the truth.
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RE: How do theists justify the translations of the scriptures? - by Rev. Rye - October 14, 2019 at 2:01 pm

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