(December 20, 2019 at 10:46 am)Klorophyll Wrote:(December 19, 2019 at 9:11 am)Gae Bolga Wrote: That's a strange question in the manner that it was framed and in the contents. Yes, a dictionary can be trusted to define words. Apostasy isn't a concept belonging to any particularly tradition - every religious authority, of every religion, has had to deal with the problem of dissenters and free riders. No matter what language is being spoken, and no matter what religion the people speaking it belong to, they've all been discussing the subject of apostasy, what to do with apostates, and the justifications for whatever course of action they may take.
Apostasy doesn't belong to people speaking about it casually, it's an extremely serious court order that only comes from a state, not individuals or insurgent groups. And consensus has been reached centuries ago that almost impossible conditions should be met before thinking of applying such penalty. I already mentioned that no order was issued by major Islamic caliphates before the 11th century, which means 4 centuries went by after Muhammad without a single case of execution because of apostasy.
So, if a "state" like ISIS or Iran's Shiite regime or Assad's Shiite-Liberal wanna-be or Sunni Wahhabi Saudi Arabia ruled -via a court that works for the government- that "x" should be beheaded for the thoughts he/she embraces, then that's okay right?
Of course. we can go back to this comment to see your true belief concerning this:
https://atheistforums.org/thread-60077-p...pid1947915
Quote:Klorophyll Wrote:
Again, I deny the existence of a verse who mentions apostasy. I know it's enforced and I know it's there in the Islamic jurisprudence based on an authentic hadith.
And if it is established by a court of Islamic law that it is actual treason (which is extremely complicated to establish and requires incontrovertible proof already) then yes, the punishment is death.
?