Is there free will in heaven?

[lucent]

Do you know what a strawman argument is Lucent? Apparently not. Go ahead attack something I didn't say and avoid the point.

This is no strawman. Your argument was a fallacious appeal to emotion, the real question behind your statement is how can a loving God allow suffering/evil. The answer is because of free will. If you want to argue this isn't sufficient, please state your case.

Even if the FWD goes through, and I would argue it doesn't. It does nothing to address the inductive problem of evil. Im afraid you're hitting the wrong target Lucent. The inductive POE is a separate argument which the FWD cannot touch. However as for the FWD it is the equivalent of saying god moves in mysterious ways. Yep he sure does, except of course if he doesn't exist.

You're acting like the inductive poe is watertight, and its not. For one, it begs the question. Consider the following propositions:

1. There appears to be no purpose to gratuitous evil
2. There is some non apparent purpose to gratuitous evil
3. There is in fact no purpose to gratuitous evil

To reject 2 and go from 1 to 3, you are saying that there are cases of gratuitous suffering. But you can only say this if you are certain there is no God. Assuming what the argument is trying to prove is begging the question.

There are other issues, such as the expectations of finite creatures as compared to an omniscient God. There are many ways to address this argument.