Why does science always upstage God?

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https://www.bible-truth.org/WhatDayDidChristDie.html
https://www.huffpost.com/entry/the-day-c..._b_6999324
https://reasonsforhopejesus.com/crucified/
https://penelope.uchicago.edu/~grout/enc...jesus.html
https://www.christianity.com/jesus/death...s-die.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixio...Chronology

Inconsistent, or maybe interpretation? Didn't you claim neither can happen.

Are you the only bible scholar that has it right?

Edit: Here are some others to ponder once you've finished with the previous: https://www.patheos.com/blogs/crossexami...adictions/

The article in your edit is the standard list of supposed contradictions. All of these supposed contradictions have been dealt with. There are volumes written on the subject. A second Google search looking for the Christian response to these contradictions would answer your questions.

But I will do the first one in the article for you: The verse in 1 John 5:18 is Johns writing about sinning as a believer. Just a few verses before this he talks about Christians that sin and that we should pray for them. And then according to the translation in the article John says "No one who is born of God sins."

So why would he say pray for sinning believers and then two sentences later say believers don't sin. That makes no sense. So lets dig deeper.

In the Greek, the word used for "sins" in 'No one born of God sins" actually translates to "continues to sin" from the Greek word harmartenai. So it's the idea of continuing to live in a sin after you are saved. As in not trying to stop sinning. Believers don't do that. They sin, but they hate their sin and they try to stop it. The Greek language is much better at communicating actions with their verbs and this is an verb denotes an action that began at some point and is continually repeated.

So, see, no contradiction.

Nope, I see contradiction and one persons interpretation vs an-other's. Also see inconsistency, in the greek it says this, in the (insert version here) it says this.

The day is Wednesday, Thursday or Friday, according to 'christians'. Not consistent. Or maybe the people writing the bible were inconsistent. Waiting over 50 years to write things down has a tendency to do that.

So where's the problem, the people reading or the people writing? Either way it's problematic and makes that 40,000 number appear plausible. 

(you asked for sources and I complied, your turn, but only if you think it will help)

Edit: and you only address one inconsistency, a consistent bible believer would address them all.