(July 30, 2023 at 1:20 pm)FlatAssembler Wrote: In Vulgate in Apocalypsis 20:4, why does it say "et regnaverunt cum Christo mille annis" (ablative? Or is it dative?), rather than "et regnaverunt cum Christo mille annos" (accusative)? They reigned with Christ for a thousand years. As far as I know, "for (some period of time)" is usually expressed with an accusative, rather than with an ablative.
Does anybody here speak Ancient Greek to tell me how it is in the original?
I have asked this question on Latin StackExchange as well.
Why.Don't.You.Look.It.Up?
Boru
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