RE: Interpreting Mark 15:34--'eloi 'eloi lama sabachthani
December 30, 2011 at 2:04 pm
(This post was last modified: December 30, 2011 at 2:05 pm by Minimalist.)
Quote:F. F. Bruce has provided a more likely translation:
Oh, that's baloney. He has done exactly what Thomas Jefferson did and taken out all the magic tricks in order to salvage some of what xtians desperately need: a historical reference to their boy.
There is no earlier text which gives even a hint of this watered-down TF. It appears, in all its glory, in Eusebius in the 4th century. Not a single xtian or non-xtian writer makes the slightest reference to it before then.
Whatever was written originally was insufficient to give the earlier xtian writer, Origen, even a hint that the passage was about his jesus.
Bruce says Josephus wrote: "He was the so-called Christ. "
Origen, writing 75 years before Eusebius says of Josephus: "Now this writer, although not believing in Jesus as the Christ,"
Something smells here.
