RE: Epicurean Paradox
April 4, 2012 at 9:06 pm
(This post was last modified: April 4, 2012 at 9:14 pm by The Grand Nudger.)
I'm pretty sure I just explained that Epicuras denies (not affirms, denies) the consequent....I'm not sure why you feel the need to repeat yourself? Argumentum ad naseum ring a bell?
@Perhaps- Being able and willing does not "neccesitate action", but that's hardly a criticism of the argument, since that's precisely what the argument asks us, if able and willing, why is there no action (and before, again, free will is offered...the free will defense removes the "able"-omnipotence- bit)?
@Perhaps- Being able and willing does not "neccesitate action", but that's hardly a criticism of the argument, since that's precisely what the argument asks us, if able and willing, why is there no action (and before, again, free will is offered...the free will defense removes the "able"-omnipotence- bit)?
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