Moral rules vs moral sense

[Hovik]

The only thing I agree with here is that the situation is analogous to correct use of English.

First of all, there is a difference between formal knowledge and formal training. For example, studying the rules and standards on your own is the same as acquiring formal knowledge, but it is not formal training.

Secondly, without there being such a body of formal standards, any aberration would be impossible to identify. Try to converse with a child to see how many times they use the language incorrectly and you promptly correct them. For example, using "gooder" instead of "better". Every time you correct them, you are imparting a piece of formal knowledge and that is not possible without such knowledge being codified.

I don't know what I'm jumping into here but I just want to point out that this is not how language acquisition in children occurs. I realize it's just an analogy, but because your model of language acquisition is wrong, any point depending upon it is by implication wrong.

Exactly this. Children learn language passively, not actively. Correcting them does absolutely nothing to advance their language acquisition.