Human Value Nonexistent?

[genkaus]

I can't seem to grasp the idea because we have a concept of praise, we therefore have a concept of objective praise.

I cannot put it in simpler terms than this - just because we have the concept of praise doesn't mean we have the concept of objective praise. Whether or not the praise is objective would always depend on what is the basis for it.

Take this highly simplified analogy - we have a concept of measurement. That doesn't mean that any objective standards for measurement are automatically available to us. For example, suppose everyone starts measuring rice by the fistfuls. Now that would be a subjective measurement, since everyone's fist has different dimensions. Does that mean that the concept of measurement is inherently subjective in nature? Or does it mean that whatever 'fist' we accept as standard has to come from something transcendental to be objective? Neither. What we fail to realize that the measurement should be determined not by the subject doing the measuring (thus making it subjective) but on the object being measured(thus objective). It is up to us - in that case - to come up with a standard of measurement. Once we establish that, that standard then becomes a thing of reality - something concrete. From that moment forward, measurements based on that standard are objective.

Currently, we very well might be in the 'fistful' stage where things like value and praise are concerned. You are assuming that the since it is always the subject who determined the amount of praise or worth due to something (such as you determining how praiseworthy an action is) these attributes are inherently subjective. But, the amount of praise bestowed should depend on the action itself - not on the one who perceives it. Just because we haven't come up with an objective standard doesn't mean there can't or shouldn't be one.

You would think if we have this objectivity, we would all have agreed by now.

Do you think that the praise afforded to an action should depend on the action and not the one giving the praise?

Further question is evolution wise, did the perception of "pride" grow as primates to human evolved...But when did primate to humans ever rely on objective analytical reasoning to act morally? If it was all subjective then, and everyone was relying on subjective and united as we evolved, when did it become objective?

It hasn't become objective - yet. But its getting there.

If we always misguided in our morals, and never justified (we didn't have books to write way back when we were evolving) it, how did objectivity judgment ever take roots in a human?

Its roots can be traced to the age of enlightenment. But it hasn't grown completely yet.