Why Secular Morality is Superior

[John V]

You omitted the first definition, which does specify awareness.

But the first one does.

So what? My assertion was (emphasis added): "Sentience does not necessarily imply feelings or self-awareness." To support that claim, all I need to do is show some definitions which do not require self-awareness. You did that for me, and I added to it with links to more in-depth discussions which you ignored.

How can a being "suffer" when it has no self-awareness?

By undergoing pain:
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/suffer?s=t

suffer
verb (used without object)
1.
to undergo or feel pain or distress

Not sure why you ask, though. I doubt you really want to argue that your morality only pertains to self-aware beings and denies that others beings can suffer.

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I quoted you chapter and verse of your own scripture. What else do you want?

I haven't seen chapter and verse of god ordering rape.