RE: Why Secular Morality is Superior
June 20, 2013 at 2:13 am
(This post was last modified: June 20, 2013 at 2:14 am by fr0d0.)
(June 20, 2013 at 1:57 am)Maelstrom Wrote:(June 20, 2013 at 1:40 am)fr0d0 Wrote: No one has managed to substantiate anything yet.
Do not be so facetious, because neither have you to substantiate anything. Rather, you make turnabout comments redirecting the burden away from you. If you want to remain smart, you should reevaluate yourself. Goodness knows, one only gets so many chances with me. You have just used your last chance.
Once more with the threats.
Please show me what I need to substantiate.
I have made no claims. I'm not turning anything about. My position is that of the unaltered text. Text which is quoted directly as evidence supposedly saying something that isn't there.
I'm asking for clarification as to why I should understand the opposite of what is written.
So far no one has managed to make one single valid justification of their claims that the text means the opposite of what it says.
Surely if this is so clear to you that shouldn't be difficult. Surely if you couldn't substantiate something you wouldn't claim it to be true?
Are you being dishonest here?