RE: The Problem of Imperfect Revelation: Your Thoughts?
July 13, 2013 at 1:07 pm
(This post was last modified: July 13, 2013 at 1:11 pm by MindForgedManacle.)
(July 13, 2013 at 3:24 am)Godschild Wrote: You're the one who made the claim that Christians do use the word, now show me proof that Christians use this word. You have not thus far given any proof of anything you have stated period, you have failed on all accounts. you're a childish person that doesn't want to admit your wrong, If scripture does not call God benevolent then why do you believe you can use omnibenevolent to describe God?
That's easy enough: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omnibenevolence:
Article Wrote:Omnibenevolence (from Latin omni- meaning "all", and benevolent, meaning "good")[1] is defined by the Oxford English Dictionary as "unlimited or infinite benevolence". It is often held to be impossible, or at least improbable, for a deity to exhibit such property alongside omniscience and omnipotence as a result of the problem of evil. However, some philosophers, such as Alvin Plantinga, argue the plausibility of co-existence. The word is primarily used as a technical term within academic literature on the philosophy of religion, mainly in context of the problem of evil and theodical responses to such. Although even in said contexts the phrases "perfect goodness" or "moral perfection" are often preferred because of the difficulties in defining what exactly constitutes 'infinite benevolence'.
[...]
The term is patterned on, and often accompanied by, the terms "omniscience" and "omnipotence", typically to refer to conceptions of an "all-good, all-knowing, all-powerful" deity. Philosophers and theologians more commonly use phrases like "perfectly good",[2] or simply the term "benevolence". The word "omnibenevolence" may be interpreted to mean perfectly just, all-loving, fully merciful, or any number of other qualities, depending on precisely how "good" is understood. As such, there is little agreement over how an "omnibenevolent" being would behave.
And lastly:
The acknowledgement of God's omnibenevolence is an essential foundation in traditional Christianity; this can be seen in Scriptures such as Psalms 18:30: "As for God, his way is perfect: the word of the Lord is tried: he is a buckler to all those that trust in him," and Ps.19:7: "The law of the Lord is good, converting the soul: the testimony of the Lord is sure, making wise the simple." This understanding is evident in the following statement by the First Vatican Council.
Need I quote more?
More to the point, it demonstrates that you either lied or were just ignorant that Christians HAVE used the term, regardless of if YOU do. Whether or not you use the term, or the average Christian does, is irrelevant, especially given the term is merely referring to the concept of supreme goodness.
