(January 6, 2010 at 6:52 am)Shinylight Wrote:
So the hallucination of one Biblical figure is held in an unsavoury way, but the hallucinations of many others are thought to be the word of God.
Please explain to me how you can debunk something that can't be 'bunked' in the first place, and why when people debunk(quite accurately) the bible Christians suddenly assume that it was metaphorical?
No, the hallucination of one biblical figure is held in a humanistic way and disagrees with the combined ideas of all (to my knowledge) of the other NT Biblical figures. And if you define "suddenly" as since the age of enlightenment then I guess we'll have to accept that we (Christians) "suddenly" believed the bible was all metaphorical.
Any comments on 1 and 3? I genuinely would like to see any references you have for 3 before I get home for bed.