RE: Can objective morality exist in Atheism?
February 22, 2010 at 4:40 am
(This post was last modified: February 22, 2010 at 4:41 am by Violet.)
(February 22, 2010 at 4:23 am)fr0d0 Wrote: Tav (and VOID) is using the classic get out clause... because he knows the logical answer is that there can be no evidence and that's what Christians logically accept - so he makes the observation that the question wasn't answered. Such is the coherence of his logical argument. He and VOID both insist on banging their heads on the wall when they've had the answer in pure logic but cannot see that the question has been answered. It's exactly like giving a fool a piece of string and telling them there's ice cream on the end and not the brick that keeps hitting them on the head. They keep pulling the string in the hope that against the evidence they plainly feel, there really must be ice cream there.
The problem is that pure logic does not a true thing make... 0.o
Please give me a home where cloud buffalo roam
Where the dear and the strangers can play
Where sometimes is heard a discouraging word
But the skies are not stormy all day