Fuel against the fundies

[tackattack]

I go to the original koine greek or hebrew text whenever possible. I also prefer context. I don't read greek or hebrew, Jews take the time to study the language that's why I'd like his opinion on the translation.

I'll excerpt,

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Approach: Personally study the Bible's original Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek writings and attempt to understand precisely what the writers taught. If so, then you may find that these same passages condemn specific homosexual activities (rape, prostitution, child sexual abuse, ritual sex in temples, etc.) But the Bible appears to be silent about same-sex, committed, loving relationships.

"qadesh" means a male prostitute who engaged in ritual sex in a Pagan temple. This was a common profession both in ancient Israel and in the surrounding countries. The word is often mistranslated simply as "sodomite" or "homosexual." (e.g. the King James Version of the Bible, Deuteronomy 23:17). The companion word quedeshaw means female temple prostitute. It is frequently mistranslated simply as "whore" or "prostitute." A qadesh and quedeshaw were not simply prostitutes. They had a specific role to play in the temple. They represented a God and Goddess, and engaged in sexual intercourse in that capacity with members of the temple.
"to'ebah" means a condemned, foreign, Pagan, religious, cult practice, but often simply translated as "abomination." Eating food which contains both meat and dairy products is "to'ebah" A Jew having a meal with an Egyptian was "to'ebah." A Jew wearing a polyester-cotton garment, or having a tattoo is "to'ebah" today.

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In a world where ritual pagan sex in the church with prostitution was common and trying to be stamped out, and with no mention of female homosexuals (btw homosexual is a 19th century word) I have to conclude that they meant ritual pagan sex between male and male, not a concensual loving relationship between 2 men or 2 women. I agree that a vast majority still do see homosexuality as a sin. But simply put the Bible is the living inspired words of God, it is not inerrant, I think it is still one of the worlds most translated books and as such, more integrity is required than less. If I were to ever take a literalist approach to the Bible, it would almost certainly have to be in it's original text. I've already spoken to many Jews on the subject of it's validity and am quite satisfied with my own qualification, however it is telling of the Jews that interpret it a certain way, that's why I asked.

"Like all indigenous peoples, the Jews were not overly concerned about male homosexuality, where two men lived together in a monogamous, sexual relationship. As a rule, it did not get any notice....The Talmud does not record a single instance of a person being brought before the Sanhedrin on the charge of homosexual activity."-Rabbi Gershon Caudill, "A Heterosexual Jewish Rebbe's View on the (Supposedly) Homosexual Texts in the Hebrew Bible,"