Logic has to be assumed 'true' in the first place in order to be 'true'.
But how can logic really be false if both 'true' and 'false' make no sense without logic?
I don't think logic can be 'true' or 'false' because it is the basis for 'true' and 'false'. Neither make sense without it.
Or have I missed something?
EvF
But how can logic really be false if both 'true' and 'false' make no sense without logic?
I don't think logic can be 'true' or 'false' because it is the basis for 'true' and 'false'. Neither make sense without it.
Or have I missed something?
EvF