(March 12, 2014 at 6:37 am)Tonus Wrote:(March 11, 2014 at 6:41 am)Alex K Wrote: What is objective morality?The only explanation that I've seen that is even remotely applicable is the Christian idea that whatever god says is moral is moral. I don't think that is objective morality (since god's directives change) as much as it is absolute obedience. Communities and societies define, and many times re-define, what constitutes moral behavior. I cannot imagine that there has ever been a community or society that did not modify its moral standards over time, assuming they lasted more than a week.
I think that these days, the term is mostly used to reinforce the laughable idea that without god, men would become "immoral beasts."
Mhm. That's very close to Euthyphros dilemma ( which was written for polytheism, but with such a schizophrenic God, it almost works unchanged
). Either God approves of a deed because it is pious, but then there is a source of morals greater than God and God is therefore not necessary to have objective morality, or a deed is pious by definition if God approves of it, in which case it is not only arbitrary and thus does not provide objective morality, but God has also acted inconsistently in the past and has ordered things which we today find repugnant.
