The first Christians weren't Bible Christians

[Aractus]

Instead of saying almost all Christians couldn’t own a Bible I should have said most. To me 99% and almost all are synonymous but mos t is the better word to use

Well that's just not accurate. It's true that for a time the RCC prohibited the laity from owning private copies of the Bible - but besides that period in history the Bible was feely available to the laity, and that goes all the way back to the Jewish traditions before Christianity even existed. In Judaism scribes could make copies of any of the scriptures, and were able to correct any errors in their copies by comparing them to the temple scrolls. Since Hebrew was a dying language even in the first century, some of the books had also been translated into Greek and continuing this tradition the Christian texts were translated into every available language too. That meant that those speaking Latin, German (there's about 1,000 manuscripts in German that date prior to the 15th century), French, etc, meaning that not only did Christians have the New Testament Bible in the original Greek but they also had it translated into languages that the laity could read in the same way that we have the Bible translated into English and every other major Language today. Anyone who wanted their own copy of the Bible would not have had much trouble acquiring one so long as they could a. cover the cost (or could scribe their own), and b. could read.

Due to the cost of creating ancient codices prior to the printing press is why we find so many ancient manuscripts cover only the NT text and not the OT, and that shouldn't surprise anyone.