(May 28, 2014 at 11:18 pm)Brakeman Wrote:(May 28, 2014 at 10:53 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: Apparently you're confused. You realize that the "Son of man" is the one speaking right?
So when he says "There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom." He is speaking of John.
Quote:Theodore Robinson
"..it is clear that for some reason or other the first generation of Christians did expect his speedy return, and if this impression was not based on his own language, whence could it have come?" (The Gospel of Matthew, p. 195).
Quote: C.H. Spurgeon
"If a child were to read this passage I know what he would think it meant: he would suppose Jesus Christ was to come, and there were some standing there who should not taste death until really and literally he did come. This, I believe, is the plain meaning." ("An Awful Premonition" in 12 Sermons on the Second Coming of Christ - Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1976, 5)
Quote:Milton Terry
"All sorts of efforts have been made to evade the simple meaning of these words, but they all spring from the dogmatic prepossession that the coming of the Son of man in his glory must needs be an event far future from the time when the words were spoken." (Apocalyptics pp.213-252)
No one agrees with your apologetic twisting.
Look, it is very simple. Jesus stated:
"There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom."
Was John standing there? Yes.
Did John see his coming? Yes.
You get it?