(May 29, 2014 at 8:14 pm)Brakeman Wrote:(May 28, 2014 at 10:17 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: In case you haven't figured it out, he was speaking of John.
No, thats silly. The name is a title, Not an indefinite article.
Quote:The expression "the Son of man" appears 81 times in the Koine Greek of the four Gospels: thirty times in Matthew, 14 times in Mark, twenty five times in Luke and 12 times in John.[8][3] However, the use of the definite article in "the Son of man" is novel, and before its use in the Canonical gospels, there are no records of its use in any of the surviving Greek documents of antiquity.[3]
Geza Vermes has stated that "the son of man" in the New Testament is unrelated to Hebrew Bible usages. Vermes begins with the observation that there is no example of "the" son of man in Hebrew sources and suggests that the term originates in Aramaic — ברנש - bar nash/bar nasha.[5] He concludes that in these sources "Son of man" is a regular expression for man in general and often serves as an indefinite pronoun and in none of the extant texts does "son of man" figure as a title.[5]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Son_of_man_...tianity%29
In the Old Testament only Israelites/Hebrews/Jews were considered "men." Gentiles were considered beasts or dogs.