Is nihilism the logical extreme of atheism?

[Thumpalumpacus]

There can be none; that purpose is defined by a deity, and is inherently subjective, just as any morality derived from the same source must be.

(my bolding) That seems contradictory.

It is okay for the Judeo-Christian god to kill folks and torture them ... but such actions are rightly regarded as loathsome when perpetrated by humans. Clearly, this is no absolute morality in play here, else killing would be wrong for both god and man under identical circumstances.

That purpose too would be inhernetly subjective is borne out by the fact that the believer must first believe in the deity in order to accept that the deity might have a purpose for him or her ... and even then, given the strange silence of the deity, the believer my=ust himself discern any putative "meaning" or "purpose" this deity might supply.

In other words, it still devolves onto the human, because the gods ain't talkin'.

---

I disagree. It can be wrong for me to kill someone for no good reason, and right for you to do so given appropriate impetus -- say, I'm charging you with a knife. From your viewpoint, killing a person is right at that point, because you are defending your own life.

That means that the propriety of killing is subject to the conditions pertaining at the time of the killing; it is subjective.

Point of correction - dependence on the conditions and facts on the ground makes it conditional - not subjective. Being subjective would require dependence on an entity's wishes or desires.

It would also almost surely be subjective, in the sense that no one wants to be a murder victim; we therefore think of it as wrong.

I get what you're saying, and I certainly should have worded it better. Thanks.