(February 4, 2015 at 9:45 am)ChadWooters Wrote: You all make a logical fallacy by assuming that just because previous examples of something had X then all subsequent examples must also have X. Just because the previous religions were false doesn't mean that Christianity is also. The pattern is broken. The examples I gave, Mithras and Osiris, were both mystery cults whereas Christianity was/is not.
No one has used the logical fallacy that you are accussing us of using. Show me the post where someone wrote that because one religion was false that all religions must then be false.
We are arguing that the adherents if preChristian religion had as strong of faith in their belief system as you have in yours