RE: Atheists only vote please: Do absolute MORAL truths exist? Is Rape ALWAYS "wr...
February 19, 2015 at 12:29 am
(February 19, 2015 at 12:20 am)NuclearJaguar Wrote:(February 19, 2015 at 12:16 am)Irrational Wrote: A victim of rape may be traumatized by the event, but the rapist would have taken pleasure out of it. What is the objective basis for considering one side's feelings but not the other party's?
Well if we're getting technical, consensual sex isn't exactly hard to get. And even if it is, I dunno. Porn? Sex toys? Wank? Cold showers? There are alternatives... why does it have to be rape?
No, no, I didn't ask you what's an alternative for would-be rapist to indulge themselves in instead.
You said rape is wrong no matter what society says ... and your reason was because it affects those who are raped, right? What within the nature of this so-called objective morality dictates that you only consider how the raped feel about this? What is the reason you won't consider the rapist's feelings about rape in spite of you implying that morality is objective (and not subjective)?
Not sure if I'm making sense with my question.
