RE: Atheists only vote please: Do absolute MORAL truths exist? Is Rape ALWAYS "wr...
February 19, 2015 at 12:40 am
(This post was last modified: February 19, 2015 at 12:41 am by wiploc.)
(February 19, 2015 at 12:29 am)Irrational Wrote:(February 19, 2015 at 12:20 am)NuclearJaguar Wrote: Well if we're getting technical, consensual sex isn't exactly hard to get. And even if it is, I dunno. Porn? Sex toys? Wank? Cold showers? There are alternatives... why does it have to be rape?
No, no, I didn't ask you what's an alternative for would-be rapist to indulge themselves in instead.
You said rape is wrong no matter what society says ... and your reason was because it affects those who are raped, right? What within the nature of this so-called objective morality dictates that you only consider how the raped feel about this? What is the reason you won't consider the rapist's feelings about rape in spite of you implying that morality is objective (and not subjective)?
Not sure if I'm making sense with my question.
Your question makes sense.
I can't answer for Jaguar, but I can answer for me: We do take other people's feelings into account. Relatives and friends of the victims are also made unhappy by rapes. Women who are afraid to go out at night are made less happy by the rapes. And so on.
You can fold the reactions of the rapists into the moral calculation, but rape's tendency to decrease happiness is still a very strong one.
It's not like it's a near thing. It's not like including the rapists' votes might shift the balance.
