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Are "logical" and "rational" objective classifications of a person's actions?
#3
RE: Are "logical" and "rational" objective classifications of a person's actions?
For example, when scientists look at evidence, they look at it objectively: the evidence is there, now they have to understand it. In this case, "objective" means that you're not projecting what you would have done, given your own values, morals, way of thinking, and so on, but rather what should have been done, regardless of one's values, morals, way of thinking, and so on, to achieve the goal.

The way I see it, "logical", when applied to something that is inherently subjective (a person's actions and desired outcome), is en par with "absolute morality", in that they're oxymora. People's desires are not universal, so the use of the terms "logical" and/or "rational" when classifying what someone did is illogical (see what I did there? Big Grin Seriously though, see what I did there? In my view, the usage of these words is illogical, but, in your view, it's not. This is because we have different PoV's. If there were an objective PoV, we'd be able to say whether or not this was, in fact, [il]logical).
The truth is absolute. Life forms are specks of specks (...) of specks of dust in the universe.
Why settle for normal, when you can be so much more? Why settle for something, when you can have everything?

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RE: Are "logical" and "rational" objective classifications of a person's actions? - by One Above All - February 22, 2015 at 10:12 pm

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