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"My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me?" Was Jesus Really Sinless?
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RE: "My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me?" Was Jesus Really Sinless?
(May 11, 2015 at 5:09 pm)Vicki Q Wrote:



You make a good point, that the Hebrew word is very uncertain. 'King James' chose a translation that suited his purposes, and most translations have followed it. This might work well for apologetic purposes, but as can be readily seen, there is none to be had. Thank you for pointing it out.

The (NRSV) version I linked to translates Psalm 22:16 as “My hands and feet have shrivelled”, with a footnote saying “Meaning of Heb uncertain”. Which leaves me uncertain how I was misusing a translation of “piercing”.

Furthermore, my explanation was that the Psalm retold the meta-narrative of the OT/NT and was as such a summary of the controlling narrative for Jesus death. This isn't based on a particular translation of one word, but on a reading of the Psalm as a whole, and how it fits in as explanatory to the Good Friday and Easter events.

As to the question of deceit- the Hebrew word can mean many things. I'm sure you've researched how marginal the various translation possibilities are, (dependent on a small mark!). You may be right, as Xians are not above lying if they think it will further the Gospel, but the KJV decision may well be just opportunistic because it is very hard to translate.

As for the question of clarity- I can only speak for myself, and repeat that I am here specifically to clarify. As such challenges to clarify are more than welcome. However in this instance, I remain a little puzzled as to how I was misusing a specific translation of a word that I wasn't using, and how that leads to me making a fool of myself. Perhaps you could clarify?


Indeed it would appear that my core point- the Psalm as interpreting the crucifixion events rather than being evidence of Jesus disobedience remains intact. It still remains a remarkable piece of writing.

It's been my observation that some people hate the various versions because they like to translate the original manuscripts themselves every time they refer to the ancient fairy tale.  Evidently they are very accomplished linguists and far more knowledgable than the guys who wrote the various versions in their own vernacular using their favorite idioms to express the underlying ideas.  Most of it is still BS however it's translated.  Personally I like the Message version because it uses the most colorful language.  
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RE: "My God, Why Hast Thou Forsaken Me?" Was Jesus Really Sinless? - by Wyrd of Gawd - May 12, 2015 at 2:05 am

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