(July 13, 2015 at 3:40 am)Neimenovic Wrote:(July 13, 2015 at 12:15 am)Drich Wrote: Do you know why the changed the federal statute?
From against ones will to having consent of the victim?
Because the "will" of an individual at a given time is near impossible to prove. While consent is far easier to establish. Not to mention all who "change" their will once the sober up, even after they have given consent.
Like it or not we are a nation of laws and those laws are defined and are executed by the collective understanding of those definitions. In this case not wanting to have sex but consenting to it (unforced)is not the same as rape. Again read the statute.
Case dismissed.
How does any of that adress what I said?
she did not consent, she said she doesn't want to have sex. her husbabd forced her to have it anyway. It's rape, plain and simple. I don't know how that escapes you.
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I reject your reality and substitute my own!