[Quranic Reflection]: (2) The Romans have been defeated

[WinterHold]

Thats not an answer to why your specific interpretation is the *true* one, especially in the light of the fact that not only "some sunni and shiite literature" views this as a description of 7th century events, but that this is the view of a majority of scholars.

So, why are you right, and most other people wrong (as usual   )?

I think this is the right interpretation "Rum" refers to Rome -either Eastern or Western; the word is not specific to an empire-, while "Byzantine" is specific to the Eastern Empire.