Yes. That is the question, isn't it?
BTW, I'll give you one other little thought. Corinth did not exist in 60 BC....except as a burned out ruin which is the way the Romans left it in 146 BC. The simplest answer to that little problem is that by the time the proto-orthodox xtians got around to rehabilitating 'paul' into their writings Corinth was a going concern and the letters were simply "re-addressed."
BTW, I'll give you one other little thought. Corinth did not exist in 60 BC....except as a burned out ruin which is the way the Romans left it in 146 BC. The simplest answer to that little problem is that by the time the proto-orthodox xtians got around to rehabilitating 'paul' into their writings Corinth was a going concern and the letters were simply "re-addressed."
