(July 5, 2017 at 10:23 pm)Khemikal Wrote: Their actions most likely follow from what they subjectively describe to be right and wrong. There's no disconnect. There is -no- functional difference between an objective and a subjective morality. Person A thinks x is subjectively wrong and they do y. Person b thinks x is objectively wrong....and they do...wait for it.......y.
Perhaps no functional difference at that moment in time. Wouldn't the difference be that Persona A knew their morality was subjective and could be subject to changes over the course of time, experiences, authority influences, change of culture, change of location, emotions, even laziness etc.? Whereas wouldn't Person B's objective morality resist change? Magnify that over several cultures and a couple of generations, then large gaps in morality would be possible.
My opinion is that most people believe in objective morality no matter what they want to call it. It is only the atheists who is more philosophical in nature that discovers that it must be subjective and label it so out of loyalty to the cause.
