RE: Are religions that preach inequality for women and gays, traitors to their country?
January 26, 2021 at 11:51 am
(This post was last modified: January 26, 2021 at 11:54 am by The Grand Nudger.)
There are quiet a few examples in thread. Boru offered some, Angrboda, your thread title is full of them. More fundamentally, we don't think that human beings have always behaved morally, or, at least, we only see evidence of it beyond a certain point pretty far from our beginning and closer to our present.
The acquisition (or production, whichever we prefer) of a moral sense would be a change, and the contents of that moral sense have been fairly elastic ever since whenever that occurred. FWIW, there are notions that some shared reality and shared biology account for whatever morsels of shared moral sense we possess...but, like all things in nature..if this is a purely biological function like instinct in a meaningful sense - there is and has always been variation.
All of that is super interesting and we could spill alot of digital ink about it - but it may be that you just see moral sense and the contents of moral sense as having never changed - and all of the variations beings mistakes and misunderstandings and what have you. I had an earlier question that might give us insight here - without needing to determine for all time what morality is and when we got it.
Let's just suppose, for the purposes of discussion - that moral sense and moral content had changed - and lets suppose that they changed because we realized (or believed) that we had gotten something wrong. Let's suppose that no system has ever corrected every mistaken perception it owns all at one - and so these changes are ongoing.
What would be the issue with that, and wouldn't changing our moral proclamations to accord with more and/or better information over time be a good thing? Now, I do appreciate your angle on institutions who claim the final word and use that claim as a means to abuse - but, between a rock and a hard place...they can either continue to do that, or they can change their moral proclamations. I think that most of us, and most of the faithful, have begun to prefer the latter - but that wasn't always the case...as yet another example for the thread.
The acquisition (or production, whichever we prefer) of a moral sense would be a change, and the contents of that moral sense have been fairly elastic ever since whenever that occurred. FWIW, there are notions that some shared reality and shared biology account for whatever morsels of shared moral sense we possess...but, like all things in nature..if this is a purely biological function like instinct in a meaningful sense - there is and has always been variation.
All of that is super interesting and we could spill alot of digital ink about it - but it may be that you just see moral sense and the contents of moral sense as having never changed - and all of the variations beings mistakes and misunderstandings and what have you. I had an earlier question that might give us insight here - without needing to determine for all time what morality is and when we got it.
Let's just suppose, for the purposes of discussion - that moral sense and moral content had changed - and lets suppose that they changed because we realized (or believed) that we had gotten something wrong. Let's suppose that no system has ever corrected every mistaken perception it owns all at one - and so these changes are ongoing.
What would be the issue with that, and wouldn't changing our moral proclamations to accord with more and/or better information over time be a good thing? Now, I do appreciate your angle on institutions who claim the final word and use that claim as a means to abuse - but, between a rock and a hard place...they can either continue to do that, or they can change their moral proclamations. I think that most of us, and most of the faithful, have begun to prefer the latter - but that wasn't always the case...as yet another example for the thread.
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