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I was interviewed by a world religions class student
#9
RE: I was interviewed by a world religions class student
(October 9, 2015 at 8:07 pm)goodwithoutgod Wrote:


Q2: You say there is no evidence, historical or otherwise, to support the existence of God or Gods. Yet, the cosmological argument/theory uses science/physics to support the argument that there is a God/Self-Being. Do you believe this argument is flawed? If so, why?

A2: "First let’s look at the Cosmological argument:
Incorporating Aristotle's notion of a "prime mover" into Summa Theological and elsewhere, Thomas Aquinas famously formulated his version of the cosmological or "first cause" argument. According to this argument, the things which we see around us now are the products of a series of previous causes. But that series cannot go back in time forever. Thus there must be some first cause which was not itself caused by anything else. And that first uncaused cause is God. 

The argument can be put more formally as follows:

1. Every thing has either been caused to exist by something else or else exists uncaused.
2. Not every thing has been caused to exist by something else.
3. Therefore, at least one thing is itself uncaused.

There are several problems with this argument. The most crucial objection to the argument itself is that unless we know that premise 2 is true, the argument fails. If the universe is infinitely old, for instance, everything could indeed be caused by something else before it; the series of causes could go back forever. But perhaps more importantly, one could hold that the argument succeeds without believing that God exists. There could be multiple uncaused causes—multiple gods, say—or the uncaused cause could be an unintelligent, impersonal force. Finally, the argument holds that God is required to explain the existence of the universe, but offers no explanation for why God exists. If you invoke God to answer the question "Why is there a universe rather than nothing?" you raise the further question "Why is there a God rather than nothing?" The fundamental question—"Why is there something rather than nothing?"—remains unanswered either way; so why invoke a potentially nonexistent God to explain a universe which we know exists? This is the epitome of god-of-the-gaps argument. We don’t know…so….god.

One cannot state with any degree of validity that the first causal theory doesn't apply to the mythical egocentric Abrahamic god because one has the unique opinion he is the "eternal god", thus wasn't "caused". How does one arrive at that thought? How does one ascertain ones version of "god" is eternal? Which god by the way? There are so many, yet each fan club thinks their god is the only god, the true god and the only true religion. The irony of that kills me. 4500 different religions, all of which claim their god is the one, the truth and the light. Christianity alone has over 40,000 strains of their delusion, and each declares all others are not "true Christians".

The major premise of the argument, ""everything had a cause," is contradicted by the conclusion that "god did not have a cause." You can't have it both ways. If everything had to have had a cause, then there could not be a first cause. If it is possible to think of a god as uncaused, then it is possible to think the same of the universe.

Some theists, observing that all "effects" need a cause, assert that god is a cause but not an effect. But no one has ever observed an uncaused cause and simply inventing one merely assumes what the argument wishes to prove. If a god can be thought eternal, then so can the universe. The word "cause" is a transitive verb. Causality requires temporality. If god exists outside of time, he cannot cause anything.

The latest spin on this position by Christian philosophers like William Lane Craig is that:

1) Everything that begins to exist has a cause.
2) The universe began to exist.
3) Therefore, the universe has a cause.

This may be seductive to those who already believe in a god. To me, it seems awfully suspicious. The clause "Everything that begins to exist" sounds artificial. It is not a phrase we hear outside the context of theistic philosophy. It appears to be an Ad Hoc construction designed to smooth over earlier apologetic efforts.”


Opinions? thoughts? supporting or opposing perspectives on my answers?

I am interested in your Q/A #2  
I think that you correctly stated, that the argument you put forth from Aristotle hinges on premise number two.  And this cannot be known absolutely, without absolute knowledge (as we currently cannot test that not everything is caused by something else). However there are valid philosophical reasons to hold to premise two. 

First, you cannot have an actual infinite quantity (it is an abstract).  You can have a potential infinite, with the possibility for more, but you always have a finite set.   Take this into consideration with time, and cause and effect. 
If there is a potential  infinite amount of time, then you always have a preceding moment in time. You essentially have time flowing in two directions.  With this, you also will have effects proceeding their causes.  Another consequence is that if time is flowing in both directions, then wouldn't there still be a starting point of reference?  It is now in the middle, but you still have to have an initial cause that is uncaused.  I believe that to get rid of premise #2 is to remove the whole cause and effect relationship, which is a foundational assumption of both science and philosophy. 

You state that it is a contradiction that "everything has a cause, but "god (sic) did not have a cause".  However; this is a mis-statement of the argument.  The argument is that everything which has a beginning has a cause.  That which does not have a beginning does not require a cause to account for a beginning (there is no effect to require it).  This is necessary no matter which view you hold as a primary cause, if you are going to avoid the consequences of infinite regress. 

You assert that time and the universe can be posited as not having a beginning.  Have you every looked at the evidence why scientists believe this not to be the case.  I stated one philosophical reason why time cannot be eternal above. 

You also said that the argument that "every thing that begins to exist has a cause" seems suspicious, and appears to be "ad hoc"; that it is not a phrase we hear outside of theistic philosophy.   Again, I would say that this is a foundational presupposition of science and philosophy.  We assume that what which begins has a cause, and we can only do this, if we first have an uncaused cause.

I would point out, that this is not a new spin by Dr. Craig, but that the basic argument has been around for centuries.  It can be seen as an extension of Aristotle's argument, but the Kalam is normally attributed to a 9th century Muslim philosopher.  The only difference I am aware of is that he makes reference to the world, where as Craig does change it to universe; but, it is the same basic argument.

I do agree with you, that these arguments do no point to a specific religious tradition.  And they are not meant to.  This is a part of a larger argument which seeks to assess the qualities of the cause, which is in answer to the question, "why is there something rather than nothing".  It utilizes evidence and reason, to look for a likely answer. 

This part of the argument seeks to establish one thing alone.  That there is a first cause, which is uncaused.  (As seen in the Judeo/Christian revelation many centuries before)   Seeing how there is multiple points of evidence which speak to the universe having a beginning, it cannot be this cause.  

I think you are mis-interpreting the intentions of these arguments, in thinking that they are meant to point to a specific religion.  For that you need revelation, and to decide if the history of these religions is reliable.
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Messages In This Thread
RE: I was interviewed by a world religions class student - by RoadRunner79 - October 10, 2015 at 2:57 pm

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