(May 20, 2009 at 5:42 pm)Tiberius Wrote: If free will is such an assumption, how is "not free will" any less of an assumption? As far as I see it, we have the evidence for free will, which is that we make choices (at least we think we do), and other people can observe us making choices.
I am forced to ask how that is relevant? Obviously, at least as far as I am concerned, if human possession of free will is an assumption then lack of possession of free will is also an assumption i.e. we assume we have free will because it suits us to believe we have it (and because the general population tends to believe we have).
I suppose what both Ev and I are saying is that no one knows whether free will exist or not.
Kyu
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Where those who are hacked off with the stupidity of irrational belief can vent their feelings!
Come over to the dark side, we have cookies!
Kyuuketsuki, AngryAtheism Owner & Administrator
