Why God doesn't stop satan?

[R00tKiT]

Step one:  Demonstrate that a "timeless being" actually exists - empirically, not philosophically.

Why do you exclude non empirical arguments ? 
It's obvious that a timeless being can't proven empirically(=inside space and time). 

Step two:  Demonstrate that it does indeed have foreknowledge.

You skipped some steps before this one, like proving that some abrahamic religion is true. Once this is done, it's the content of the revelation that tells us this deity has foreknowledge.

You only saw this one world and spacetime, it's rather comprehensible that you think time is a necessary condition to do something... So, argument from personal incredulity 

No, it's a reasonable interpretation of the laws of physics.  Action and time are related.

It's clearly an argument from incredulity, and you should be ashame of yourself for defending a fallacy, which I think you're aware of.

You have no credible evidence for your god in this universe, so you use the pathetic excuse that your god is hiding in some other place that human science can't detect.

The problem with this is that it renders your god impotent, incapable of interacting in any way with our universe unless it steps into our space-time sphere (where it should then become detectable).  We can detect light from billions of years ago.  We can detect exoplanets orbiting nearby stars.  We can detect the Cosmic Background Radiation, the electromagnetic "echo" of the Big Bang.

Oh.. you don't like God being outside of space and time? That's cute.

And it would be an absolute breakthrough in philosophy if you can establish that a being outside of space and time is impotent.

But even a single trace of a being allegedly so powerful that it created the universe?

Usually when someone puts their name everywhere in their product, it's a sign they are insecure. Why can't the universe itself and what it contains be the trace of this being and a display of His power?

There is no time gate to a pre-knower. 

But the object of foreknoweldge is bound by time, as I repeatedly explained to you. The free will of an individual intrinsically depends on time and circumstances, you don't take that into account in your refutation. 

The issue between free will and preknowledge, for the umpteenth time.  Is that -if it can be known...even if it isn't known, even if no one knows it, even if no one -makes- it happen, that you will select x.....  You cannot do otherwise. 

You say, "you cannot do otherwise". This assertion is true in what moment exactly ? before I select x, or afterwards ?