Why God doesn't stop satan?

[R00tKiT]

Yes I can assert free will. Because this is not an argument for free will, but for compatibility between foreknowledge and free will. Meanwhile, keep playing mind games with P1.

And as I pointed out, her choice wasn't free unless she could have made a diffferent choice.  But if she made a different choice, then P2 and P3 are false.  That's an inconsistency.  If P1 assumes free will, it's not necessarily consistent with P3 and the argument fails.  All you're doing is dressing up the assertion that free will and omniscience are compatible in logic -- it remains a bald assertion unless you demonstrate that free will can exist after assuming omniscience.  P1 doesn't demonstrate free will.

I think you should re-read the argument, you're just confused now. I am not trying to demonstrate free will, at all. I assert there is an agent D with free will, I assert there is a foreknower then prove by equivalence that these two assertions are logically compatible.

I know that the consistency between P1 and P3 is not clear, that's what I and Nudger are arguing about. But proving that P2 and P3 are logically equivalent is really easy. 

Once this is done, the argument is as follows : If (P2 is logically equivalent to P3) AND (P1 and P2 are logically compatible) THEN (P1 and P3 are logically compatible). QED.

Is P2 and P3 true if she chooses something else?  No they are not.  So she couldn't have chosen from any "set" of actions and still be consistent with P2 and P3.  Her choice is thus determined.

I think you have an issue with something else - the compatibility between P1 and P2. This is known as logical fatalism, it can be found in the literature that it has been resolved, I will try to find a reference to a solution. 

My arguments rests on the equivalence between P2 and P3. The compatibility between P1 and P2 is proven, but I'll need to think futher before giving a detailed answer.