(July 16, 2012 at 3:57 pm)spockrates Wrote:(July 16, 2012 at 1:28 pm)FallentoReason Wrote: Quite simply, how do you explain all the references Mark makes to the OT? Another one for you: the words Jesus spoke on the cross are the exact same ones as Psalm 22:1. Why do all these supposedly historical facts reflect almost word for word verses in the OT? Remember, I'm not even bringing up prophetic verses in the OT but rather trivial verses that pop up in Mark's Gospel. Why?
Mark makes no reference to Hosea in chapter 11. When Mark does make a reference to an OT prophet, he names the prophet as the source. For example:
It is written in Isaiah the prophet:
2“I will send my messenger ahead of you,
who will prepare your way” —
3 “a voice of one calling in the desert,
‘Prepare the way for the Lord,
make straight paths for him.’”
(Mark 1)
Why would the author name the prophet in the first chapter, but leave out the name of the prophet in the 11th chapter?
Jews that would hear Mark's Gospel would be able to pick up on the allegory. I'm assuming this because they had the oral tradition thus meaning that they would know when Mark explicitly references the OT word for word (e.g. Mark 1: what John was wearing, Mark 11: words of Jesus on the cross).
Mark is littered with these almost explicit parallels to the OT. I find it hard to believe that he wouldn't have done it on purpose. The question is why did the other two synoptics try and get rid of the allegories like I have shown you?
"It is the mark of an educated mind to be able to entertain a thought without accepting it" ~ Aristotle
