(July 18, 2012 at 8:23 pm)aleialoura Wrote:(July 18, 2012 at 7:59 pm)nazra7 Wrote: The problem is you're assuming its slavery and I'm showing you why that's not necessarily the case, if you have a problem with that then you're no freethinker.
You've shown nothing of the sort. It says slavery, slavery is clearly defined, and you just want to feel better about it.
Slavery is defined as owning a person as legal property AND forcing them to obey. There is no evidence that the servants in the OT were forced to obey their masters and evidence for suggesting otherwise that I will not repeat, rather you can go back and look at it for yourself.
This proves you did not read my argument.
