Does the Bible Contradict Itself?

[pgrimes15]

It is commonly thought that Judas impaled himself on his sword, since "hang" and "impale" are the same word. It was a common form of suicide. The word for "hang by the neck" did not come about until 1400 AD.

Citation?

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If "going back to the original Hebrew" results in a passage that has, at best, different words, and at worst a different meaning, then why isn't the whole bible just re-translated from the original Hebrew.

In the case of the OT, we don't have the original works, unless by "orginal" you mean "oldest extant".

In the case of the NT, it was written in Greek, not Hebrew.

Are there old copies of the OT in Hebrew ? (I don't mean "versions that were copied from Hebrew sources" or any such cop-out)
I assumed there must be since Undecieved talked about "going back to the Hebrew" to alter the meaning of a passage.

There must at least be old copies of the Jewish Torah in existance - that is the OT isn't it - and there are plenty of Hebrew speakers in Israel - why not make a definitive, non-interpreted OT, freshly translated by the most accurate and un-biased scholars, then we can stop arguing about whether "hang" meant "impale" and stuff like that.

Regards

Grimesy