Failed Biblical Prophecies

[Drich]

And the evidence that it was written in "Hebrew" is where? This is another canard that you shitheads trot out when things go against you.

The earliest specimens we have of the OT are in Greek.

Old and forgetful. We've had this conversation at least 4 times now.

Just because something is older (especially if it is in another language) does not mean everything after it was copied from the foreign text.

---

Actually no. The passage was orginally written in Hebrew. We Changed the hebrew word and translated into the word 'found' To give us a ball park understanding of the passage. Meaning in order for you to use the english word only and the english defination onto a hebrew passage mean YOU ARE CHANGING THE DEFINATION OF THE WORD, and subsequently the whole meaning of the passage to fit your arguement. (Straw man.)

Changed!?! Four out of the five definitons roughly meant 'found', and only one didn't. Who's changing things? Back in those times, they probably though that if Tyre was destroyed in the manner they claimed, no one would be able to find it. They were wrong.

No one has. For no one has been in the presents of one single stone of that city since it was consumed by the sea, therefore fullfilling the prophecy.