How is Yahweh not immoral?

[Aractus]

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Whenever a story of god's immorality surfaces, one of the following apologetic arguments is used as a retort:

1. That was the OT.
   
2. You just don't understand the customs of the day.
   
3. Who are you to judge god?
   

Let's look at the first one. What did Jesus really say?
Matthew 5:17-20
17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. 19 Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20 For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.

He does not appear to have made any attempt to overturn them. Now, what if he did overturn them? This could only mean that god had made imperfect laws before.

A pretty weak straw man argument...

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Clarify.

We begin with the assumption that God is immoral and the Bible recounts examples of this. It is then claimed that Christians typically resort to "explaining away" immorality due to obviously bad arguments - that was the OT, it's out of context, we can't judge God. Having already assumed God to be immoral, Darkstar goes on to claim that since Christians acknowledge the Law of Moses is immoral (we don't) that Jesus should have overturned them, and since we ourselves don't follow them it "must mean" that it is immoral. This is an obvious straw man.

1. The law of Moses doesn't bring righteousness.

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Romans 4:1-3: What then shall we say was gained by Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh? For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.”

Galatians 3:1-7: O foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? It was before your eyes that Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified. Let me ask you only this: Did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith? Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh? Did you suffer so many things in vain—if indeed it was in vain? Does he who supplies the Spirit to you and works miracles among you do so by works of the law, or by hearing with faith—just as Abraham “believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”?

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2. The law of Moses represents an old covenant. The new covenant in Christ is able to stand on its own and does not need to be yoked-together with the law of Moses.

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Acts 15:7-11: And after there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, “Brothers, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe. And God, who knows the heart, bore witness to them, by giving them the Holy Spirit just as he did to us, and he made no distinction between us and them, having cleansed their hearts by faith. Now, therefore, why are you putting God to the test by placing a yoke on the neck of the disciples that neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear? But we believe that we will be saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, just as they will.”

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3. The law of Moses was a continuation of covenants that God had made with his chosen people (the Hebrews, the Israelites, the Jews) to set them apart from the world. Christ represents a new covenant for all people "Greek and Jew". The covenant between God and Moses was for the Israelites, thus the covenants were made by the forefathers of the Jews. The covenant was not made for the gentile nations, their forefathers did not have covenants with God. Thus Christ brought a new covenant for the whole world - not to make existing covenants "obsolete" or "abolished".

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Matthew 11:27-30: All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him. Come to me, all who labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn from me, for I am gentle and lowly in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light.”

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Galatians 5:22-23: But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law.

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Do you want to address this, now:
"If the laws of the OT coincide with the inferior moral views of the day (i.e. slavery permitted, semi-regular mass murders, etc.) then this is more evidence that they were created by human minds."
?

Slavery in the Bible will take a good while to discuss. Deut 23:15 for instance says that slaves that have "escaped" their masters are not to be returned to their former masters. If the Jewish men had sex with their female slaves they had to either marry them (this would give them equal rights as to their Jewish wives) or free them. Jews were not allowed to have their slaves work on the Sabbath. Male slaves had to be freed after 7 years of service (or otherwise they could choose to remain a slave to their master). Etc. Slaves had extensive rights, something other cultures did not give them.