(November 21, 2012 at 1:47 pm)genkaus Wrote: Nope. Since it only refers to your god's self0righteousness, it is neither unchanging nor absolute.Are you truly ignorant of the Law of God? Nothing has changed since it was issued.
Quote:Then we can establish that not even your god is perfectly moral. Further, since you have proven that morality is an ever changing standard, then you cannot claim that only your god's morality is unchanging.Morality is MAN'S Standard not God's. God's Standard is refered to as Righteousness. Righteousness is the perfect standard of God. 'Morality' is man's version of righteousness that allows for the sins he is willing to live with.
Quote:And by the way, saying "fallacy of logic" is insufficient, you have to point out which fallacy is it.

If you still need the fallacy identified (and for whatever reason you have access to this website but can not do a google search) then take what I wrote and compare it to these definations. One of them will stand out: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fallacy
Quote:So why would god have any authority?Asked and answered already. God's authority stems from being the creator of everything.
Quote:Sin without morality? How is that even possible?Sin is anything not in the Expressed Will of God. If God at that point only issued one command, and it was to be followed or it wasn't. Morality was a none issue because their was no understanding of Evil.
Quote:Sounds about right - since god's morality is akin to "Used toilet paper" to me. And what exactly gives your god the right to judge me?You're presupposing that Their is a God, and that thier is a Final judgement with this statement. thus giving you the grounds to refuse judgement. If as you suppose their is a God, (My God as you put it) then He did create everything, and as the God of Everything, He has the 'right' to do with any part of His creation as He see fit. So why are you judged? Because He said so.
