what being apart from the law means.

[Drich]

Chapter 5 is the beginning of his sales pitch to preceed the sermon on the mount.

19 and 20 are quite interesting in that, as we will see elsewhere, jesus will later diss the pharsiees and the scribes, and separate righteousness from them. In the beginning he's cool with them. One possible explanation, this was during his sales pith for being the messiah, and later was after they had rejected his possibility of being valid.

17 and 18 is part of the general sales pitch, saying that he is going to fulfill the prophecy of messiahship, and that (to be safe) he is not going to say are do anything to violate the mitzvot (law) or Torah. To do otherwise at that stage would invalidate his claim.

Although having a non-Jewish father probably has the pharisees dismiss him out of hand, ticking him off, and going on a rampage about them in the later chapters.

Red herring much?

What does any of this have to do with the usage of the Greek word (Not Hebrew) νόμος/nomos being translated to mean torah rather than Law? The usage of this word has no bearing how one feels about the Pharisees.

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When you speak as the the bible speaks, then doesn't it make sense to let it do most of the talking?

Particularly when a snake, bush, or donkey is doing the talking.

Hee Haw