(March 15, 2013 at 10:54 pm)ChadWooters Wrote:(March 15, 2013 at 10:36 pm)FallentoReason Wrote: Quite clearly, the "prophecy" about Jesus is nowhere to be found because the servant seems to be Jacob and/or Israel. Your apologetic line is just in fact a Christian invention that relies on misusing the OT.Actually the traditional understanding of Isaiah 53 was Messianic for both Christians and Jew until about the 11th century. Christians said the messiah in question was Jesus, the Jews said it was a future messiah. It wasn't until the Crusaders were confronting European Jews with the idea that the Jesus as the messiah, that a certain Rabbi, whose name eludes me at the moment, reinterpreted the Isaiah 53 as referring to the nation of Israel. And that novel interpretation has since become the norm.
Nowhere does the text indicate that the "servant" already explicitly mentioned a handful of times is now going to represent the messiah. Why should I believe it's miraculously about Jesus now?
"It is the mark of an educated mind to be able to entertain a thought without accepting it" ~ Aristotle
