RE: Prove Christianity, not Theism in General
March 24, 2013 at 10:35 pm
(This post was last modified: March 24, 2013 at 10:36 pm by radorth.)
(March 24, 2013 at 3:32 am)FallentoReason Wrote: If I may...
It doesn't make sense literally because of the numerous contradictions that sort of reading spawns e.g. two creation accounts. But then a metaphorical reading doesn't work because of the apparent intricate relationship between the OT and NT e.g. the genealogy from Adam to Jesus. Surely the genealogy isn't from metaphorical man to literal man? Therefore, a literally reading seems to be the most logical... as far as "logical" goes with the Bible.
Both atheists and Christians commit the same logical fallacy in having these arguments. The fallacy is:
"False in one part, therefore false in all."
IOW the following assertions are both illogical.
Atheist: "Nah nah I found a mistake, so I don't have to buy any of it."
Christian: "That's not a mistake. It all fits."
The freethinker/logical person does neither. Unfortunately, the Christians feed into this fallacy by going along with the idea that it all fails if part fails. That's nonsense. If half of Mark is true and the rest false, one half of Mark is still true.
Both sides object, "well how do I know what to believe?" You don't until you inquire diligently and set aside that which you cannot accept. That's what Jefferson did, and many other true thinkers.
